ZigoParticipant
Master
Why talking about 1 M and 5 M as scalping TF ‘s?
The basic of time is the second 1 S (indivisible or we speak of fractions of a second). The basic of time is not 1 M. Because 1 M is 60 seconds and 5 M is 300 seconds .
If 1 minute is 60 seconds its divisible by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30 and 60. That’s why I think 1 M TF work less then f.i. 144 S (144 > 2 M and < 3 M)
Why 144 seconds, there are 12 dividers for 60, 12² = 144 (144 is a Fibonacci number)
144 S = 12² S and 144 *5 =(exact) 12 Minutes and 144* 5² = (exact) 1 hour and 144*5³ = (exact) 5 hours
144 is a Fibonacci number and there is no other Fibonacci number that give the same result.
Oh my God, a new explanation of the world…
I just don’t understand what that has to do with the topic … unless you can explain how to process this theoretical advantage of the Fibonacci in a system.
Give me a tip. I don’t use Fibonacci as a time frame in my indicators. For example, if I use an EMA5 in the M1, that’s an EMA25 in the M5 in the MTF … not an EMA21 or something.
As a tip for all numerologists : try out the DAX 25 minutes chart. Usually, it gives better results (in backtests) than 15, 20, 30 or 60 minutes. If you don’t believe it, try a simple Renko system in all of these timeframes and see which one has the best results : it is 25 minutes. Probably, because many full and half hours (9:00, 15:30) are avoided, when major markets open or close.
I haven’t even looked at it from that point of view.
ZigoParticipant
Master
Scalped on a 11 sec TF. It’s possible.
In hindsight, everything seems possible. On an 11, 144 or 666 second timescale…
I would have liked to see a backtest with the WF70 / 30.